Thanks for that additional word, as it clarifies my thinking in the larger context of an ongoing, raging debate that I seem to be in with "statists" or at least "partial statists." Let me explain:
"Either he's referring to the Roman state or he isn't. I don't see a third option."
The "third option" I see is—as your comment has brought clearly into focus for me—actually an infinitely nuanced take on "how the Roman state is viewed" in this passage. In the minds of statists, including many of my peers, I think it has become a matter of degree as to the circumstances and the amount of civil disobedience allowed by the passage. Most of them still believe the state is at some level legitimate, while I do not. I see the state as raw power.
In my own mind, I am at the far extreme; even if I were to hypothetically allow that Romans 13 might possibly be referring to the Roman state, I don't see it as morally demanding any "obedience" at all; rather, as a warning to be prepared to suffer the consequences of going against the grain.